Can someone explain why we are using "ce" in "ce la faccio", for example? Why isn't it enough to use "la faccio"? I think it should be that way since "la" indicates "it". Would love to understand the use of "ce" more profoundly.

  • 2
    Have you seen these similar questions? [1] and [2]
    – DaG
    Commented Mar 16, 2020 at 8:46
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    Yes but they did not address why "ce" is in use. Another example is "ce l'hai", not necessarily "farcela". Why "ce"? And how to memorise or know when to use it?
    – LoveIsHere
    Commented Mar 16, 2020 at 11:59
  • @LoveIsHere: Do you mean "ce" instead of "ci"? Or simply why is this pronominal particle in use in these expressions?
    – Charo
    Commented Mar 16, 2020 at 12:19
  • Why do we use ce/ci + lo/li if it seems like they have the same meaning?
    – LoveIsHere
    Commented Mar 16, 2020 at 12:21
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    @Charo. Ok Thank you. I will read more about it. It is good to know it is more of a phrase and not very explainable...
    – LoveIsHere
    Commented Mar 16, 2020 at 16:46

1 Answer 1


The clitic pronoun ci carries the “there” meaning, which implies the directionality towards which the action is directed. The phrase ce la faccio doesn’t carry the meaning of la faccio —i. e. farla— by itself, since the verb farcela was grammaticalized, just like pronominal verbs like divertirsi. It was not inherited from Latin, but chances are that its “directionality” was derived from Neapolitan. Same situation happens with avercela [con qc], which is entirely grammaticalized and, thus, it is not divisible or cannot be rephrased simply as averla [con qc].

Grammaticalized pronominal verbs occurred, too, in Spanish, for instance: pasarla [adv.], whose meaning is absolutely different to that of pasar.

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