Can someone explain why we are using "ce" in "ce la faccio", for example? Why isn't it enough to use "la faccio"? I think it should be that way since "la" indicates "it". Would love to understand the use of "ce" more profoundly.
The clitic pronoun ci carries the “there” meaning, which implies the directionality towards which the action is directed. The phrase ce la faccio doesn’t carry the meaning of la faccio —i. e. farla— by itself, since the verb farcela was grammaticalized, just like pronominal verbs like divertirsi. It was not inherited from Latin, but chances are that its “directionality” was derived from Neapolitan. Same situation happens with avercela [con qc], which is entirely grammaticalized and, thus, it is not divisible or cannot be rephrased simply as averla [con qc].
Grammaticalized pronominal verbs occurred, too, in Spanish, for instance: pasarla [adv.], whose meaning is absolutely different to that of pasar.