Is the form "mi sa che mi" considered correct or should I avoid to use it? These are some examples:

"Mi sa che mi perderò la partita"

"Mi sa che mi sono innamorato"

  • 4
    The second "mi" is unrelated to the first. Remember that "mi sa" is typical of oral language; but the rest is correct.
    – Martino
    Jun 7, 2015 at 9:59
  • Why should it be uncorrect?
    – DaG
    Jun 7, 2015 at 12:13
  • @DaG per esempio " a me mi piace" è scorretto...
    – G M
    Jun 14, 2015 at 9:49
  • @GM: Anche “se io avrei” è scorretto; e allora?
    – DaG
    Jun 14, 2015 at 11:51
  • @GM Actually "a me mi piace" is considered an acceptable oral idiomatic expression (the double dative is considered a reinforcement). Here is an article from the Accademia della Crusca website. Jul 1, 2015 at 20:25

2 Answers 2


When I scan the sentence I see no mi sa che mi, I have mi sa <subordinate clause> and if <subordinate clause> happens to contain mi, this doesn't tell me there is or there should be any relationship between that mi and the previous one.

If you are worried about the sound, due to the presence of a repetition, as a native speaker I personally don't have any problem with that (do you?). Bottom line, I think mi sa che mi perderò la partita is just fine.


Is the form "mi sa che mi" considered correct or should I avoid to use it?

Yes, it is correct. The phrase "Mi sa che" means "I have the impression that... ", "I think that..." followed by a subjective sentence ("...mi...").

These are some examples:

"Mi sa che mi perderò la partita"

"Mi sa che mi sono innamorato"

The examples you reported are correct. In addition, the sentence "Mi sa che..." can be followed by the future (Futuro Semplice, first example), the present (Indicativo, second example) and also followed by the "Congiuntivo" (ex: "mi sa che mi debba aggiornare").

Hope this helps.

  • Benvenuto/a su Italian.SE, @Bane!
    – Charo
    Jun 8, 2015 at 4:43
  • Bane, do you have a source for the use of the subjunctive mood after “mi sa che” (as in your last example)? I am under the impression that it is a kind of hypercorrection, but I may well be wrong.
    – DaG
    Jun 8, 2015 at 7:03
  • 2
    Charo, thank you. @DaG of course it is correct, check out this link: accademiadellacrusca.it/it/lingua-italiana/…. It is in Italian, at the end it says: "...after the proposition "mi sa che" it is preferable to use the indicative, because of its higher frequency, but no doubt you can use the subjunctive...". The authress in the link refers to Italian dictionaries Sabatini-Coletti 2008 and Zingarelli 2012.
    – Mastahgame
    Jun 8, 2015 at 7:52
  • Thanks, Bane, one learns something new every day! (Why “of course”? Apparently it's not so obvious, if “molti utenti” of Crusca's website, not to mention me, were in doubt about this.)
    – DaG
    Jun 8, 2015 at 14:25
  • @DaG please, I used "of course" in the sense of "surely", "without doubt", rather than of "obvious", my intent was to justify my statement anyway. I think that, as Sherlock Holmes said, "there is nothing more deceptive than an obvious fact" :)
    – Mastahgame
    Jun 8, 2015 at 15:34

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