2

On Wiktionary the first person singular for "fare" both lists faccio and fo. I've asked an Italian and they have never heard of "fo". I did some research on the net and found an explanation (if I understood everything correctly) that fo is a regional form (Tuscan) and therefore not universally understood/used.

Is this correct?

1
  • 1
    Welcome to Italian.SE!
    – Charo
    Jun 27, 2016 at 22:00

1 Answer 1

4

"Io fo" is actually an alternative form for the present indicative of the first person. Its usage is mainly literary and archaic Ngram (io faccio vs io fo). It is also used as a dialectal expression in Tuscany as far as I know.

Fare (v).

  • (ind.pres. faccio o fò, fai, fa, facciamo, fate, fanno, imperf. facévo ecc., pass.rem. féci, facésti, féce, facémmo, facéste, fécero, fut. farò ecc.; congiunt.pres. fàccia ecc., imperf. facéssi ecc.; cond. farèi ecc.; part.pres. facènte, pass. fatto; ger. facèndo; imp. fa o fa' o fai, fate)

  • eh! io fo l'orecchio del mercante, (Manzoni) Treccani.it

5
  • 1
    Thanks, I've updated the entry with your information.
    – Jan Berkel
    Jun 28, 2016 at 9:00
  • @JanBerkel: It might help to keep in mind that Standard Italian is historically based on the dialect of Florence, so a Tuscan use is, in a sense, more at home in Standard Italian, than one from other regions.
    – DaG
    Jun 28, 2016 at 13:40
  • 1
    And, @JanBerkel, may I suggest to consult, rather than crowdsourced Wiktionary, actual dictionaries such as some of those listed here, and in particular Treccani, Sabatini-Coletti, De Mauro and old but precious Tommaseo?
    – DaG
    Jun 28, 2016 at 13:43
  • @DaG I'm aware of the varying quality of Wiktionary entries, I don't use it exclusively, but it's very handy for language cross-reference, esp. etymologies. In this particular case I had actually consulted Treccani which does list "fo" under "fare" but does not explain anything about its origin or usage information. And it confusingly lists "fo" before "faccio", which would indicate that it is the more common form.
    – Jan Berkel
    Jul 8, 2016 at 19:45
  • It should be noted, however, that fo is the more commonly used form after the prefix dis-: “disfo le valigie”
    – Tom S. Fox
    Dec 31, 2017 at 5:34

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.