I came here to ask this question based on a question in the Spanish language stack based on the origin of the Spanish word joder (somewhat equivalent to fottere, though follar would be closer). In my answer there I learnt the Italian word fottere is quite an old one, but the surprise came when I looked up its meaning.
You see, in Spanish the official defintion of joder is as follows:
Poseer sexualmente a alguien.
I found the equivalent definition here for fottere in Italian:
Possedere qlcu. sessualmente.
Possedere sessualmente una donna.
So my question is why are the definitions of Italian fottere so biased towards the man possessing a woman? What happens when the woman takes the initiative, or even when two women make the sexual act? Can't a woman fottere a man or another woman? Is the word used in those cases or do you use another one?