Timeline for Is ‘cosare’ equivalent to the generic use of ‘do’ in English?
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7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 9, 2015 at 18:08 | comment | added | alsa | @JohnQPublic I agree with you (as you can se from my vote). I will only add that "Che?" is certainly used in Tuscany, where I come from. And I trink also in some of our southern regions. I don't think I have ever heard it in Genoa or in Milan. | |
| Nov 26, 2014 at 18:47 | comment | added | MickG | @Andrea in my opinion the cosa in che cosa? is a noun, as I said in the comment. When cosa? is alone, I guess it is a shortening of che cosa?, rather than an adverbial use of cosa. | |
| Nov 26, 2014 at 18:46 | comment | added | MickG | @JohnQPublic… I guess it actually is :). Che?, Che cosa? and Cosa? are all equivalent, though Che? is less common than the others at least in spoken language. Literally it would be What thing?. I do not know how this developed, but that's the way it is. | |
| Dec 15, 2013 at 21:35 | comment | added | Giambattista | I do understand that fare is closer to to do as an action (this one is pretty easy because it's also used as fare in English: e.g. I fared well on my exam, I'm faring relatively well with my Italian lessons, Fare thee well, etc.). I'm having a hard time of grasping the concept of a generic verb. I made the connection through Wiktionary though; I'd never heard that prior to reading their entry for cosare. I'm thinking of it as something like to do in #9. As for Che cosa?, I just don't understand why Che? isn't sufficient. | |
| Dec 14, 2013 at 14:54 | history | edited | I.M. | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
corrected spelling
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| Dec 14, 2013 at 10:08 | review | First posts | |||
| Dec 14, 2013 at 14:55 | |||||
| Dec 14, 2013 at 9:52 | history | answered | Andrea | CC BY-SA 3.0 |